4 Oct
2003
4 Oct
'03
4:58 p.m.
Hello,
yes, it is possible. The default config file contains condition
if (uri==myself) {
do something
};
t_relay();
What does that mean: If the Request-URI of a message contains a domain
that belons to the server, the server does some processing like
registration/unregistration etc..
If the Request-URI contains a domain that doesn't belong to the server
then the server will simply forward it there, without any special
processing.
So your setup should work providing that you have correct DNS records.
Jan.
On 04-10 00:19, John Foster wrote:
Hi all,
Here is a scenario, i m working on, If anyone can comment on it.
Scenario:
I have two SIP domains, abc.com and xvz.com
sip.abc.com is running ser and has registered users with xxxx(a)abc.com
similarly sip.xyz.com is serving users xxxx(a)xyz.com
sip.abc.com and sip.xyz.com can be resolved through standard dns servers as SRV hosts for
their respective domains.
There is no explicitly defined routing procedure on ser.conf for other domain, in both
SIP servers machines.
Is it possible for xxxx(a)abc.com to register with sip.abc.com and place a call to user
xxxx(a)xyz.com.
While trying, i m getting no packet on sip.abc.com not sip.xyz.com for the subject call.
Any comment?
JF
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